Why?
I was hesitant to post this, but as I think about this latest murderous rampage in California, I am compelled to write out my thoughts, just try to straighten them out for myself. A commonality in most of these horrible incidents is that the murderer has been taking, or has taken in the recent past, psychotropic drugs. Does this show that the drugs cause psychotic behavior, or that the person taking them had exhibited that behavior, thus causing the prescription? Or could it be that these drugs are unnecessarily prescribed and are causing the behavior? I'm not saying this lightly, because I take Wellbutrin for anxiety and depression myself. It has helped me more than I can say. I wouldn't want these drugs to be banned because some people who use them seem to have had a mental break. Another common aspect in these crimes is that the perpetrators are often young people who are on psychotropic drugs, sometimes more than one at a time. Is it possible that an undeveloped and imma